Thursday 24 September 2020

Chapter 2 solution

 Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)


  1. Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
    • (i) mole fraction
    • (ii) parts per million
    • (iii) mass percentage
    • (iv) molality

  2. On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature solution feels cool to touch.
    Under which of the following cases dissolution of sugar will be most rapid?
    • (i) Sugar crystals in cold water.
    • (ii) Sugar crystals in hot water.
    • (iii) Powdered sugar in cold water.
    • (iv) Powdered sugar in hot water.

  3. At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is ____________.
    • (i) less than the rate of crystallisation
    • (ii) greater than the rate of crystallisation
    • (iii) equal to the rate of crystallisation
    • (iv) zero

  4. A beaker contains a solution of substance ‘A’. Precipitation of substance ‘A’ takes place when small amount of ‘A’ is added to the solution. The solution is _____________.
    • (i) saturated
    • (ii) supersaturated
    • (iii) unsaturated
    • (iv) concentrated

  5. Maximum amount of a solid solute that can be dissolved in a specified amount of a given liquid solvent does not depend upon __________.
    • (i) Temperature
    • (ii) Nature of solute
    • (iii) Pressure
    • (iv) Nature of solvent

  6. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude is due to _____________.
    • (i) low temperature
    • (ii) low atmospheric pressure
    • (iii) high atmospheric pressure
    • (iv) both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure

  7. Considering the formation, breaking and strength of hydrogen bond, predict which of the following mixtures will show a positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
    • (i) Methanol and acetone.
    • (ii) Chloroform and acetone.
    • (iii) Nitric acid and water.
    • (iv) Phenol and aniline.

  8. Colligative properties depend on .
    • (i) the nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution.
    • (ii) the number of solute particles in solution.
    • (iii) the physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in solution.
    • (iv) the nature of solvent particles.

  9. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?
    • (i) 1.0 M NaOH
    • (ii) 1.0 M Na2SO4
    • (iii) 1.0 M NH4NO3
    • (iv) 1.0 M KNO3

  10. The unit of ebulioscopic constant is _______.
    • (i) K kg mol–1 or K (molality)–1
    • (ii) mol kg K–1 or K–1(molality)
    • (iii) kg mol–1 K–1 or K–1(molality)–1
    • (iv) K mol kg–1 or K (molality)

  11. In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a 0.01 M MgCl2 solution is _____.
    • (i) the same
    • (ii) about twice
    • (iii) about three times
    • (iv) about six times

  12. An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickle, shrivels because .
    • (i) it gains water due to osmosis.
    • (ii) it loses water due to reverse osmosis.
    • (iii) it gains water due to reverse osmosis.
    • (iv) it loses water due to osmosis.

  13. At a given temperature, osmotic pressure of a concentrated solution of a substance .
    • (i) is higher than that at a dilute solution.
    • (ii) is lower than that of a dilute solution.
    • (iii) is same as that of a dilute solution.
    • (iv) cannot be compared with osmotic pressure of dilute solution.

  14. Which of the following statements is false?
    • (i) Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same depression in freezing point.
    • (ii) The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation Π = CRT ( where C is the molarity of the solution).
    • (iii) Decreasing order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solutions of barium chloride, potassium chloride, acetic acid and sucrose is BaCl2 > KCl > CH3COOH > sucrose.
    • (iv) According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure exerted by a volatile component of a solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.

  15. The values of Van’t Hoff factors for KCl, NaCl and K2 SO4 , respectively, are_________.
    • (i) 2, 2 and 2
    • (ii) 2, 2 and 3
    • (iii) 1, 1 and 2
    • (iv) 1, 1 and 1

  16. Which of the following statements is false?
    • (i) Units of atmospheric pressure and osmotic pressure are the same.
    • (ii) In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules move through a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower concentration of solute to a region of higher concentration.
    • (iii) The value of molal depression constant depends on nature of solvent.
    • (iv) Relative lowering of vapour pressure, is a dimensionless quantity.

  17. Value of Henry’s constant KH___________ .
    • (i) increases with increase in temperature.
    • (ii) decreases with increase in temperature.
    • (iii) remains constant.
    • (iv) first increases then decreases.

  18. The value of Henry’s constant KH is _______.
    • (i) greater for gases with higher solubility.
    • (ii) greater for gases with lower solubility.
    • (iii) constant for all gases.
    • (iv) not related to the solubility of gases.

  19. Consider the Fig. and mark the correct option.
    • (i) water will move from side (A) to side (B) if a pressure lower than osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).
    • (ii) water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).
    • (iii) water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).
    • (iv) water will move from side (A) to side (B) if pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on piston (A).

  20. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentrations 0.1M, 0.01M and 0.001M, respectively. The value of van’t Hoff factor for these solutions will be in the order .
    • (i) iA < iB < iC
    • (ii) iA > iB > iC
    • (iii) iA = iB = iC
    • (iv) iA < iB > iC

  21. On the basis of information given below mark the correct option.
    Information:
    (A) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture intermolecular interactions of A–A and B–B type are nearly same as A–B type interactions.
    (B) In ethanol and acetone mixture A–A or B–B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than A–B type interactions.
    (C) In chloroform and acetone mixture A–A or B–B type intermolecular interactions are weaker than A–B type interactions.
    • (i) Solution (B) and (C) will follow Raoult’s law.
    • (ii) Solution (A) will follow Raoult’s law.
    • (iii) Solution (B) will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
    • (iv) Solution (C) will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.

  22. Two beakers of capacity 500 mL were taken. One of these beakers, labelled as “A”, was filled with 400 mL water whereas the beaker labelled “B” was filled with 400 mL of 2 M solution of NaCl. At the same temperature both the beakers were placed in closed containers of same material and same capacity as shown in Fig.

  23. At a given temperature, which of the following statement is correct about the vapour pressure of pure water and that of NaCl solution.
    • (i) vapour pressure in container (A) is more than that in container (B).
    • (ii) vapour pressure in container (A) is less than that in container (B).
    • (iii) vapour pressure is equal in both the containers.
    • (iv) vapour pressure in container (B) is twice the vapour pressure in container (A).

  24. If two liquids A and B form minimum boiling azeotrope at some specific composition then .
    • (i) A–B interactions are stronger than those between A–A or B–B.
    • (ii) vapour pressure of solution increases because more number of molecules of liquids A and B can escape from the solution.
    • (iii) vapour pressure of solution decreases because less number of molecules of only one of the liquids escape from the solution.
    • (iv) A–B interactions are weaker than those between A–A or B–B.

  25. 4L of 0.02 M aqueous solution of NaCl was diluted by adding one litre of water. The molality of the resultant solution is .
    • (i) 0.004
    • (ii) 0.008
    • (iii) 0.012
    • (iv) 0.016

  26. 25. On the basis of information given below mark the correct option.
    Information : On adding acetone to methanol some of the hydrogen bonds between methanol molecules break.
    • (i) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will form minimum boiling azeotrope and will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
      • (ii) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture forms maximum boiling azeotrope and will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
    • (iii) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will form minimum boiling azeotrope and will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
    • (iv) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will form maximum boiling azeotrope and will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
  27. KH  value for Ar(g), CO2 (g), HCHO (g) and CH4 (g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83×10–5 and 0.413 respectively.

  28. Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility.
    • (i) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar
    • (ii) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
    • (iii) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
    • (iv) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO


Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

Note : In the following questions two or more options may be correct.


  1. Which of the following factor (s) affect the solubility of a gaseous solute in the fixed volume of liquid solvent?
    (a) nature of solute (b) temperature (c) pressure
    • (i) (a) and (c) at constant T
    • (ii) (a) and (b) at constant P
    • (iii) (b) and (c) only
    • (iv) (c) only

  2. Intermolecular forces between two benzene molecules are nearly of same strength as those between two toluene molecules. For a mixture of benzene and toluene, which of the following are not true?
    • (i) Δmix H = zero
    • (ii) Δmix V = zero
    • (iii) These will form minimum boiling azeotrope.
    • (iv) These will not form ideal solution.

  3. Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property because __________.
    • (i) It depends on the concentration of a non electrolyte solute in solution and does not depend on the nature of the solute molecules.
    • (ii) It depends on number of particles of electrolyte solute in solution and does not depend on the nature of the solute particles.
    • (iii) It depends on the concentration of a non electrolyte solute in solution as well as on the nature of the solute molecules.
    • (iv) It depends on the concentration of an electrolyte or nonelectrolyte solute in solution as well as on the nature of solute molecules.

  4. Van’t Hoff factor i is given by the expression _______________.

  5. Isotonic solutions must have the same ______________.
    • (i) solute
    • (ii) density
    • (iii) elevation in boiling point
    • (iv) depression in freezing point

  6. Which of the following binary mixtures will have same composition in liquid and vapour phase?
    • (i) Benzene – Toluene
    • (ii) Water-Nitric acid
    • (iii) Water-Ethanol
    • (iv) n-Hexane – n-Heptane

  7. In isotonic solutions ________________.
    • (i) solute and solvent both are same.
    • (ii) osmotic pressure is same.
    • (iii) solute and solvent may or may not be same.
    • (iv) solute is always same solvent may be different.

  8. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the variation in total vapour pressure versus composition of solution is given by which of the curves?

  9. Colligative properties are observed when ___________.
    • (i) a non volatile solid is dissolved in a volatile liquid.
    • (ii) a non volatile liquid is dissolved in another volatile liquid.
    • (iii) a gas is dissolved in non volatile liquid.
    • (iv) a volatile liquid is dissolved in another volatile liquid.


Short Answer Type Questions


  1. Components of a binary mixture of two liquids A and B were being separated by distillation. After some time separation of components stopped and composition of vapour phase became same as that of liquid phase. Both the components started coming in the distillate. Explain why this happened.

  2. Explain why on addition of 1 mol of NaCl to 1 litre of water, the boiling point of water increases, while addition of 1 mol of methyl alcohol to one litre of water decreases its boiling point.

  3. Explain the solubility rule “like dissolves like” in terms of intermolecular forces that exist in solutions.
  4. Concentration terms such as mass percentage, ppm, mole fraction and molality are independent of temperature, however molarity is a function of temperature. Explain.
  5. hat is the significance of Henry’s Law constant K ?

  6. Why are aquatic species more comfortable in cold water in comparison to warm water?
  7. (a) Explain the following phenomena with the help of Henry’s law.
    (i) Painful condition known as bends.
    (ii) Feeling of weakness and discomfort in breathing at high altitude.
    (b) Why soda water bottle kept at room temperature fizzes on opening?

  8. Why is the vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of glucose lower than that of water?

  9. How does sprinkling of salt help in clearing the snow covered roads in hilly areas? Explain the phenomenon involved in the process.

  10. What is “semi permeable membrane”?
  11. Give an example of a material used for making semipermeable membrane for carrying out reverse osmosis.


Matching Type Questions

Note : In the following questions match the items given in Column I and Column II.


  1. Match the items given in Column I and Column II.
    Column IColumn II
    (i) Saturated solution(a) Solution having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature as that of given solution.
    (ii) Binary solution(b) A solution whose osmotic pressure is less than that of another.
    iii) Isotonic solution(c) Solution with two components.
    iv) Hypotonic solution(d) A solution which contains maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a given temperature.
    (v) Solid solution(e) A solution whose osmotic pressure is more than that of another.
    vi) Hypertonic solution(f) A solution in solid phase.

  2. Match the items given in Column I with the type of solutions given in Column II.
    Column IColumn II
    (i) Soda water(a) A solution of gas in solid
    (ii) Sugar solution(b) A solution of gas in gas
    iii) German silver(c) A solution of solid in liquid
    iv) Air(d) A solution of solid in solid
    (v) Hydrogen gas in palladium(e) A solution of gas in liquid
    (f) A solution of liquid in solid

  3. Match the laws given in Column I with expresions given in Column II.

  4. Match the terms given in Column I with expressions given in Column II.


Assertion and Reason Type Questions

Note : In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

(i) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(ii) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(iii) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement. (iv) Assertion and reason both are incorrect statements.
(v) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.


  1. Assertion : Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
    Reason : The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.

  2. Assertion : When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water increases.
    Reason : When a volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent elevation in boiling point is observed.

  3. Assertion : When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
    Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing point.

  4. Assertion : When a solution is separated from the pure solvent by a semi- permeable membrane, the solvent molecules pass through it from pure solvent side to the solution side.
    Reason : Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of high concentration solution to a region of low concentration solution.


Long Answer Type Questions


  1. Define the following modes of expressing the concentration of a solution. Which of these modes are independent of temperature and why?
    • (i) w/w (mass percentage)
    • (ii) V/V (volume percentage)
    • (iii) w/V (mass by volume percentage)
    • (iv) ppm. (parts per million)
    • (v) x (mole fraction)
    • (vi) M (Molarity)
    • (vii) m (Molality)

  2. Using Raoult’s law explain how the total vapour pressure over the solution is related to mole fraction of components in the following solutions.
    • (i) CHCl3 (l) and CH2Cl2(l)
    • (ii) NaCl(s) and H2O (l)

  3. Explain the terms ideal and non-ideal solutions in the light of forces of interactions operating between molecules in liquid solutions.

  4. Why is it not possible to obtain pure ethanol by fractional distillation? What general name is given to binary mixtures which show deviation from Raoult’s law and whose components cannot be separated by fractional distillation. How many types of such mixtures are there?

  5. When kept in water, raisin swells in size. Name and explain the phenomenon involved with the help of a diagram. Give three applications of the phenomenon.

  6. Discuss biological and industrial importance of osmosis.

  7. How can you remove the hard calcium carbonate layer of the egg without damaging its semiprermiable membrane? 

  8. Can this egg be inserted into a bottle with a narrow neck without distorting its shape? Explain the process involved.

  9. Why is the mass determined by measuring a colligative property in case of some solutes abnormal ? Discuss it with the help of Van’t Hoff factor.


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Wednesday 23 September 2020

MCQS ON PERIODICITY CLASS 11

 

Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)

  1. Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F and O2-. The correct order of increasing length of their radii is .
    • (i) F < O2- < Mg2+ < Na+
    • (ii) Mg2+ < Na+ < F < O2-
    • (iii) O2- < F < Na+ < Mg2+
    • (iv) O2- < F < Mg2+ < Na+
  2. Which of the following is not an actinoid?
    • (i) Curium (Z = 96)
    • (ii) Californium ( Z = 98)
    • (iii) Uranium ( Z = 92)
    • (iv) Terbium (Z = 65)
  3. The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on its outer shell electrons is:
    • (i) s > p > d > f
    • (ii) f > d > p > s
    • (iii) p < d < s > f
    • (iv) f > p > s > d
  4. The first ionisation enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order:
    • (i) Na < Mg > Al < Si
    • (ii) Na > Mg > Al > Si
    • (iii) Na < Mg < Al < Si
    • (iv) Na > Mg > Al < Si
  5. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (Atomic number 64) is
    • (i) [Xe]4f3 5d5 6s2
    • (ii) [Xe] 4f75d26s1
    • (iii) [Xe] 4f75d1 6s2
    • (iv) [Xe] 4f85d66s2
  6. The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is:
    • (i) The properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.
    • (ii) Non metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.
    • (iii) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4 s-orbitals.
    • (iv) The first ionisation enthalpies of elements generally increase with increase in atomic number as we go along a period.
  7. Among halogens , the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain (electron gain enthalpy) is:
    • (i) F > Cl > Br > I
    • (ii) F < Cl < Br < I
    • (iii) F < Cl > Br > I
    • (iv) F < Cl < Br < I
  8. The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to
    • (i) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.
    • (ii) atomic number of any element of the period.
    • (iii) maximum Principal quantum number of any element of the period.
    • (iv) maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.
  9. The elements in which electrons are progressively filled in 4f-orbital are called
    • (i) actinoids
    • (ii) transition elements
    • (iii) lanthanoids
    • (iv) halogens
  10. Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species:
    • (i) I > I > I+
    • (ii) I+ > I > I
    • (iii) I > I+ > I
    • (iv) I > I > I+
  11. The formation of the oxide ion, O2– (g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below:
    Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
    Thus process of formation of O2– in gas phase is unfavourable even though O2– is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that,
    • (i) oxygen is more electronegative.
    • (ii) addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.
    • (iii) electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
    • (iv) O ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.
  12. Comprehension given below is followed by some multiple choice questions. Each question has one correct option. Choose the correct option. In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic numbers which is related to the electronic configuration. Depending upon the type of orbitals receiving the last electron, the elements in the periodic table have been divided into four blocks, viz, s, p, d and f. The modern periodic table consists of 7 periods and 18 groups. Each period begins with the filling of a new energy shell. In accordance with the Arfbau principle, the seven periods (1 to 7) have 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32 and 32 elements respectively. The seventh period is still incomplete. To avoid the periodic table being too long, the two series of f-block elements, called lanthanoids and actinoids are placed at the bottom of the main body of the periodic table.
    (a) The element with atomic number 57 belongs to
    • (i) s-block
    • (ii) p-block
    • (iii) d-block
    • (iv) f-block

    (b) The last element of the p-block in 6th period is represented by the outermost electronic configuration.

    • (i) 7s2 7p6
    • (ii) 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p0
    • (iii) 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p6
    • (iv) 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p4

    (c) Which of the elements whose atomic numbers are given below, cannot be accommodated in the present set up of the long form of the periodic table?

    • (i) 107
    • (ii) 118
    • (iii) 126
    • (iv) 102

    (d) The electronic configuration of the element which is just above the element with atomic number 43 in the same group is ________.

    • (i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2
    • (ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s3 4p6
    • (iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 4s2
    • (iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d7 4s2

    (e) The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are all ________.

    • (i) noble gases
    • (ii) halogens
    • (iii) heavy metals
    • (iv) light metals
  13. Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D are given below :
    • (A) 1s2 2s2 2p6
    • (B) 1s2 2s2 2p4
    • (C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
    • (D) 1s2 2s2 2p5
  14. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing tendency to gain electron :
    • (i) A < C < B < D
    • (ii) A < B < C < D
    • (iii) D < B < C < A
    • (iv) D < A < B < C

Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.

  1. Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than 4?
    • (i) Be
    • (ii) P
    • (iii) S
    • (iv) B
  2. Those elements impart colour to the flame on heating in it, the atoms of which require low energy for the ionisation (i.e., absorb energy in the visible region of spectrum). The elements of which of the following groups will impart colour to the flame?
    • (i) 2
    • (ii) 13
    • (iii) 1
    • (iv) 17
  3. Which of the following sequences contain atomic numbers of only representative elements?
    • (i) 3, 33, 53, 87
    • (ii) 2, 10, 22, 36
    • (iii) 7, 17, 25, 37, 48
    • (iv) 9, 35, 51, 88
  4. Which of the following elements will gain one electron more readily in comparison to other elements of their group?
    • (i) S (g)
    • (ii) Na (g)
    • (iii) O (g)
    • (iv) Cl (g)
  5. Which of the following statements are correct?
    • (i) Helium has the highest first ionisation enthalpy in the periodic table.
    • (ii) Chlorine has less negative electron gain enthalpy than fluorine.
    • (iii) Mercury and bromine are liquids at room temperature.
    • (iv) In any period, atomic radius of alkali metal is the highest.
  6. Which of the following sets contain only isoelectronic ions?
    • (i) Zn2+, Ca2+, Ga3+ , Al3+
    • (ii) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl
    • (iii) P3, S2-, Cl, K+
    • (iv) Ti4+, Ar, Cr3+, V5+
  7. In which of the following options order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?
    • (i) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F (increasing ionic size)
    • (ii) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
    • (iii) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
    • (iv) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
  8. Which of the following have no unit?
    • (i) Electronegativity
    • (ii) Electron gain enthalpy
    • (iii) Ionisation enthalpy
    • (iv) Metallic character
  9. Ionic radii vary in
    • (i) inverse proportion to the effective nuclear charge.
    • (ii) inverse proportion to the square of effective nuclear charge.
    • (iii) direct proportion to the screening effect.
    • (iv) direct proportion to the square of screening effect.
  10. An element belongs to 3rd period and group-13 of the periodic table. Which of the following properties will be shown by the element?
    • (i) Good conductor of electricity
    • (ii) Liquid, metallic
    • (iii) Solid, metallic
    • (iv) Solid, non metallic

Short Answer Type Questions

  1. Explain why the electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than that of chlorine.
  2. All transition elements are d-block elements, but all d-block elements are not transition elements. Explain.
  3. Identify the group and valency of the element having atomic number 119. Also predict the outermost electronic configuration and write the general formula of its oxide.
  4. Ionisation enthalpies of elements of second period are given below :
    Ionisation enthalpy/ k cal mol–1 : 520, 899, 801, 1086, 1402, 1314, 1681, 2080.
    Match the correct enthalpy with the elements and complete the graph given in Fig. 3.1. Also write symbols of elements with their atomic number.
    Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
  5. Among the elements B, Al, C and Si,
    (i) which element has the highest first ionisation enthalpy?
    (ii) which element has the most metallic character?
    Justify your answer in each case.
  6. Write four characteristic properties of p-block elements.
  7. Choose the correct order of atomic radii of fluorine and neon (in pm) out of the options given below and justify your answer.
    • (i) 72, 160
    • (ii) 160, 160
    • (iii) 72, 72
    • (iv) 160, 72
  8. Illustrate by taking examples of transition elements and non-transition elements that oxidation states of elements are largely based on electronic configuration.
  9. Nitrogen has positive electron gain enthalpy whereas oxygen has negative. However, oxygen has lower ionisation enthalpy than nitrogen. Explain.
  10. First member of each group of representative elements (i.e., s and p-block elements) shows anomalous behaviour. Illustrate with two examples.
  11. p-Block elements form acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides. Explain each property by giving two examples and also write the reactions of these oxides with water.
  12. How would you explain the fact that first ionisation enthalpy of sodium is lower than that of magnesium but its second ionisation enthalpy is higher than that of magnesium?
  13. What do you understand by exothermic reaction and endothermic reaction?
    Give one example of each type.
  14. Arrange the elements N, P, O and S in the order of-
    (i) increasing first ionisation enthalpy.
    (ii) increasing non metallic character.
    Give reason for the arrangement assigned.
  15. Explain the deviation in ionisation enthalpy of some elements from the general trend by using Fig. 3.2.
    Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
  16. Explain the following:
    • (a) Electronegativity of elements increase on moving from left to right in the periodic table.
    • (b) Ionisation enthalpy decrease in a group from top to bottom?
  17. How does the metallic and non metallic character vary on moving from left to right in a period?
  18. The radius of Na+ cation is less than that of Na atom. Give reason.
  19. Among alkali metals which element do you expect to be least electronegative and why?

Matching Type Questions

  1. Match the correct atomic radius with the element.
    Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
  2. Match the correct ionisation enthalpies and electron gain enthalpies of the following elements.
    Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
  3. Electronic configuration of some elements is given in Column I and their electron gain enthalpies are given in Column II. Match the electronic configuration with electron gain enthalpy.
    Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given below each question.

  1. Assertion (A) : Generally, ionisation enthalpy increases from left to right in a period.
    Reason (R) : When successive electrons are added to the orbitals in the same principal quantum level, the shielding effect of inner core of electrons does not increase very much to compensate for the increased attraction of the electron to the nucleus.
    • (i) Assertion is correct statement and reason is wrong statement.
    • (ii) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
    • (iii) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
    • (iv) Assertion is wrong statement and reason is correct statement.
  2. Assertion (A) : Boron has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than beryllium.
    Reason (R) : The penetration of a 2s electron to the nucleus is more than the 2p electron hence 2p electron is more shielded by the inner core of electrons than the 2s electrons.
    • (i) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
    • (ii) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
    • (iii) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
    • (iv) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
  3. Assertion (A) : Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down a group.
    Reason (R) : Size of the atom increases on going down the group and the added electron would be farther from the nucleus.
    • (i) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
    • (ii) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
    • (iii) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
    • (iv) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.